A UK based company is considering investing GBP1 ,000,000 in a project it the USA. It is anticipated that the project will yield net cash inflows of USD580.000 each year for the next three years. These surplus cash flows will be remitted to the UK at the end of each year.
Currently GBP1.00 is worth USD1.30.
The expected inflation rates in the two countries over the next four years are 2% in the UK and 4% in the USA.
Applying the purchasing power parity theory, which of the following represents the expected remittance at the end of year three, in GBP whole the nearest whole GBP)?
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