A 65-year-old woman presents to the office for follow-up regarding vaginal bleeding. Her last visit was 2 months ago. At that visit, the results of a pelvic examination and a Papanicolaou test were normal. She also had an endometrial biopsy but there was "insufficient material for diagnosis." She reports that she is still losing small amounts of blood almost every day. On history, she has been taking continuous combined hormone replacement therapy for 10 years because of vasomotor symptoms. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
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