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Viewing questions 111-120 out of questions
Questions # 111:

What is the advantage of agent-based protection compared to agentless protection?

Options:

A.

easier to manage due to the centralized platform

B.

monitors and detects traffic locally

C.

manages unlimited devices simultaneously

D.

lower resource requirements during implementation

Questions # 112:

A SOC analyst is investigating an incident that involves a Linux system that is identifying specific sessions. Which identifier tracks an active program?

Options:

A.

application identification number

B.

active process identification number

C.

runtime identification number

D.

process identification number

Questions # 113:

What is a difference between SI EM and SOAR security systems?

Options:

A.

SOAR ingests numerous types of logs and event data infrastructure components and SIEM can fetch data from endpoint security software and external threat intelligence feeds

B.

SOAR collects and stores security data at a central point and then converts it into actionable intelligence, and SIEM enables SOC teams to automate and orchestrate manual tasks

C.

SIEM raises alerts in the event of detecting any suspicious activity, and SOAR automates investigation path workflows and reduces time spent on alerts

D.

SIEM combines data collecting, standardization, case management, and analytics for a defense-in-depth concept, and SOAR collects security data antivirus logs, firewall logs, and hashes of downloaded files

Questions # 114:

The Cisco Zero Trust Architecture simplifies the zero trust journey into three critical areas. Drag and drop the definitions onto the graphic to describe zero trust from the Cisco perspective.

Question # 114

Options:

Questions # 115:

Question # 115

Refer to the exhibit. The figure shows an X 509 certificate. Which field represents the digital cryptographic algorithm used by the issuer to sign the certificate?

Options:

A.

Signature Algorithm

B.

Timestamp

C.

Fingerprints

D.

Log Operator

Questions # 116:

An engineer runs a suspicious file in a sandbox analysis tool to see the outcome. The analysis report shows that outbound callouts were made post infection.

Which two pieces of information from the analysis report are needed to investigate the callouts? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

signatures

B.

host IP addresses

C.

file size

D.

dropped files

E.

domain names

Questions # 117:

Which tool provides a full packet capture from network traffic?

Options:

A.

Nagios

B.

CAINE

C.

Hydra

D.

Wireshark

Questions # 118:

What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive?

Options:

A.

True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, resulting in a potential breach.

B.

True positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks affecting application availability.

C.

False positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, resulting in a potential breach.

D.

False positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks affecting application availability.

Questions # 119:

An organization has recently adjusted its security stance in response to online threats made by a known hacktivist group.

What is the initial event called in the NIST SP800-61?

Options:

A.

online assault

B.

precursor

C.

trigger

D.

instigator

Questions # 120:

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 120

This request was sent to a web application server driven by a database. Which type of web server attack is represented?

Options:

A.

parameter manipulation

B.

heap memory corruption

C.

command injection

D.

blind SQL injection

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